What were we seeing as to failure? We had reports from Israel as an example of the effectiveness of the 2 doses of the BNT162b2 (Pfizer-BioNTech) shot to be 39% ( https://www.gov.il/BlobFolder/reports/vaccine-efficacy-safety-follow-up-committee/he/files_publications_corona_two-dose-vaccination-data.pdf) which was significantly less than the trial’s reported efficacy of 96% (https://www.medrxiv.org/content/10.1101/2021.07.28.21261159v1)
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10654-021-00808-7
Wait:
"We had reports from Israel as an example of the effectiveness of the 2 doses of the BNT162b2 (Pfizer-BioNTech) shot to be 39% which was significantly less than the trial’s reported efficacy of 96%"
How are those two even comparable since the number reported by Pfizer was the Relative Risk Reduction when looking at one symptom as the end-point while presumably the Israel data is looking at PCR-faked cases or perhaps even hospitalizations or etc.
Why can't they publish the Absolute Risk Reduction numbers for once?
Actually, there is PERVERSE correlation: higher vaxes, higher cases.
See https://twitter.com/stevin2021/