The African protocols didn't involve testing for the most part but diagnoses were rendered mostly on the basis of clinical presentation using a specific definition of AIDS. There were numerous such definitions, the American one involved the expression of some 30+ diseases and conditions, everything from diarrhea to dementia to cervical c…
The African protocols didn't involve testing for the most part but diagnoses were rendered mostly on the basis of clinical presentation using a specific definition of AIDS. There were numerous such definitions, the American one involved the expression of some 30+ diseases and conditions, everything from diarrhea to dementia to cervical cancer to nothing at all. These conditions had to be expressed with "HIV" present but then they came out with another definition that eliminated the "HIV" requirement! Then they eliminated the disease requirement! By 1997 nearly two-thirds of patients diagnosed with AIDS weren't even sick, they were in "good health". The first time in medical history that people were diagnosed with an allegedly 100 percent fatal disease on the basis of "good health". Until COVID that is. The CDC fixed this by no longer reporting the AIDS figures. Out of sight, out of mind. In Africa AIDS was diagnosed using the so-called "Bangui" definition which included diarrhea and persistent cough. Not exactly rare in Africa, where as one real scientist pointed out "Everybody has malaria". Also TB. The WHO estimates that half of all Africans have been exposed to TB and therefore have TB antibodies. So if an African has TB is it "AIDS TB" or "TB Classic"? There is no way of knowing without using diagnostically worthless tests that generate "false positives" and, as you mentioned, presumably false negatives as well. Whatever those terms even mean. "Science" marches on
In "The Real Anthony Fauci," RFK, Jr. points out that in Africa AIDS/HIV was a disease that infected everyone (including more females and children), while in America this virus, for some reason, only killed promiscuous homosexuals and IV drug users who share needles.
So why is the disease/virus different on different continents?
The African protocols didn't involve testing for the most part but diagnoses were rendered mostly on the basis of clinical presentation using a specific definition of AIDS. There were numerous such definitions, the American one involved the expression of some 30+ diseases and conditions, everything from diarrhea to dementia to cervical cancer to nothing at all. These conditions had to be expressed with "HIV" present but then they came out with another definition that eliminated the "HIV" requirement! Then they eliminated the disease requirement! By 1997 nearly two-thirds of patients diagnosed with AIDS weren't even sick, they were in "good health". The first time in medical history that people were diagnosed with an allegedly 100 percent fatal disease on the basis of "good health". Until COVID that is. The CDC fixed this by no longer reporting the AIDS figures. Out of sight, out of mind. In Africa AIDS was diagnosed using the so-called "Bangui" definition which included diarrhea and persistent cough. Not exactly rare in Africa, where as one real scientist pointed out "Everybody has malaria". Also TB. The WHO estimates that half of all Africans have been exposed to TB and therefore have TB antibodies. So if an African has TB is it "AIDS TB" or "TB Classic"? There is no way of knowing without using diagnostically worthless tests that generate "false positives" and, as you mentioned, presumably false negatives as well. Whatever those terms even mean. "Science" marches on
In "The Real Anthony Fauci," RFK, Jr. points out that in Africa AIDS/HIV was a disease that infected everyone (including more females and children), while in America this virus, for some reason, only killed promiscuous homosexuals and IV drug users who share needles.
So why is the disease/virus different on different continents?